The Transfer of Property Act, 1882 primarily governs transfers of:
A. Movable property only
B. Immovable property
C. Intangible rights only
D. Governmental powers
Answer: B. TPA mainly regulates inter vivos transfers of immovable property; some provisions also touch movable/other rights.

A “transfer of property” under the Act means:
A. Gift only
B. An act by which a living person conveys property to one or more other living persons
C. Succession on death
D. A lease for less than one year only
Answer: B. Definition focuses on transfer by act of parties during the transferor’s life.

Which of the following is NOT typically a mode of transfer under the Act?
A. Sale
B. Mortgage
C. Gift
D. Testamentary disposition
Answer: D. Testamentary transfers (wills) are outside TPA’s scope — they operate on death and under succession law.

The essential element of a valid transfer is:
A. Registration always mandatory for all transfers
B. Competency of parties and transfer in accordance with law
C. Presence of a witness only
D. A court order only
Answer: B. Transfers require competent parties and compliance with statutory/formal requirements where applicable.

Under TPA, a “sale” requires:
A. Only delivery of possession
B. Transfer of ownership for a price paid or promised
C. Registration only in rural areas
D. Stamp duty exemption always
Answer: B. Sale transfers ownership for a price (consideration) in money.

For a sale of immovable property, which formality is usually necessary?
A. Oral agreement in all cases
B. Writing and registration (if required by Registration Act) to be complete and binding
C. Only witness signature required but no writing
D. No formalities at all
Answer: B. Immovable property sale generally requires a written instrument and registration under the Registration Act.

A sale by a person who is not the owner but who is in possession: the buyer’s protection doctrine is found under:
A. Transfer of Property Act only
B. Specific provisions and general principles (buyer in good faith & for value may get protection against certain claims)
C. Indian Penal Code
D. Negotiable Instruments Act
Answer: B. TPA plus principles of possession and good faith help protect buyers in some scenarios, but registration and title checks remain critical.

A “mortgage” under the Act is:
A. A lease for 99 years
B. A transfer of interest in specific immovable property as security for a debt
C. A gift with conditions
D. A contract of sale only
Answer: B. Mortgage creates a security interest in immovable property to secure repayment.

Which is NOT a recognised species of mortgage under TPA?
A. Simple mortgage
B. Usufructuary mortgage
C. Equitable mortgage by possession without writing (absent other formalities)
D. English mortgage
Answer: C. Equitable mortgage exists but requires certain formalities (e.g., deposit of title deeds) — phrasing matters; other types like simple, usufructuary and English mortgages are recognised categories.

A “simple mortgage” confers on the mortgagee:
A. The right to sell immediately without decree
B. A right to get mortgage-money and to obtain a decree for sale in default
C. Exclusive ownership from day one
D. No remedy on default
Answer: B. Simple mortgage gives mortgagee right to sue and get a decree and sale on default.

Under an English mortgage, the mortgagee:
A. Gets absolute ownership subject to the mortgagor’s right to redeem on payment
B. Gets only a lien
C. Becomes trustee for mortgagor permanently
D. Loses right to sue for mortgage-money
Answer: A. In an English mortgage the mortgagee gets title but must reconvey upon redemption.

“Equitable mortgage” commonly arises by:
A. Oral promise only always valid
B. Deposit of title deeds or a document showing intention to create security without registration
C. Immediate sale deed only
D. A will
Answer: B. Equitable mortgage often arises by deposit of title deeds combined with intention to create security.

A lease under the TPA is:
A. Transfer of absolute ownership
B. Transfer of right to enjoy immovable property for a term, subject to lessor’s title
C. Always less than one year only
D. Void if not registered in all cases
Answer: B. Lease grants right to possess and enjoy property for a term in exchange for rent.

Under Section 108 (rent and landlord remedies), a monthly tenancy creates a tenancy:
A. For one year automatically
B. At will or for the agreed period; specific terms depend on agreement and local law
C. Of indefeasible ownership
D. That cannot be terminated by landlord
Answer: B. Tenancy terms vary; statutory rules and agreements define duration and termination rights.

A “gift” under TPA requires:
A. Only oral delivery always
B. Transfer by one person of existing movable or immovable property made voluntarily and without consideration, usually by registered instrument (for immovable property)
C. Consideration in money
D. Court order
Answer: B. Gift is gratuitous transfer; immovable property gifts generally require writing and registration.

A gift of immovable property is complete only when:
A. The donor says “it’s yours” in private
B. The instrument is registered and the donor has done all acts necessary to transfer possession or title as required
C. The donee signs a blank paper
D. The donee pays nominal consideration always
Answer: B. Registration and transfer formalities (and delivery where applicable) complete the gift of immovable property.

Under TPA, an “actionable claim” is:
A. Any intangible right to sue for money or movable property not in possession
B. Title to land only
C. A debt or claim recoverable by civil suit
D. A criminal claim only
Answer: C. Actionable claim covers debts or claims which can be recovered by suit; TPA allows transfer of actionable claims.

Transfer of actionable claims requires:
A. Only oral assignment always valid
B. A written instrument generally advisable and sometimes necessary; assignment by delivery of document if applicable
C. State government approval always
D. No formalities since not property
Answer: B. Assignment of actionable claims is governed by contract principles and TPA provisions on transfer.

The doctrine of “part performance” (specific relief contexts) protects:
A. Only criminal defendants
B. A transferee who has taken possession and performed conditions may be protected from the transferor’s later denial of transfer
C. The transferor always, even if transferee complied
D. None of the above
Answer: B. Equitable protection can arise for transferees who have acted to their detriment in reliance on a transfer.

Section 52 (in many discussions) deals with:
A. Gift only
B. Transfer by ostensible owner (i.e., protection of transferees from person appearing to have title)
C. Mortgage redemption only
D. Will execution only
Answer: B. TPA protects bona fide transferees who rely on the apparent ownership of the transferor.

A transfer by a person in whose favour a right of pre-emption exists: the pre-emptor’s right is:
A. Unregulated by TPA
B. A limited right to purchase on terms in which property is offered to third parties (subject to jurisdictional variations)
C. Equivalent to absolute veto over sale to anyone
D. Inapplicable to leases
Answer: B. Right of pre-emption allows holder to match offer and acquire property on same terms.

Under TPA, a condition restraining alienation of immovable property:
A. Is generally void if it imposes an absolute restraint on alienation, subject to narrow exceptions
B. Always valid and enforceable forever
C. Valid only if registered yearly
D. Applies only to movable goods
Answer: A. Courts strike down absolute restraints on alienation; limited restrictions may be valid in certain contexts (leases etc.).

The rule against perpetuities under property law aims to:
A. Encourage indefinite control of property by testator
B. Prevent creation of future interests that suspend absolute ownership for an unreasonable period
C. Abolish all future interests
D. Make all transfers revert to state after 10 years
Answer: B. Public policy disfavors restraints on transferability extending indefinitely into future generations.

Transfer for the benefit of unborn persons requires:
A. No limit on the period of vesting
B. Compliance with law on contingent interests and the perpetuity rule (i.e., reasonable vesting period)
C. Registration in name of unborn child only
D. Immediate transfer of possession only
Answer: B. Transfers to unborn persons are subject to rules about contingency and reasonable vesting periods.

“Lis pendens” doctrine under TPA prevents:
A. Any transfer being made after registration
B. Transfer of property pending suit affecting the property’s title; subsequent transferees take subject to suit
C. Mortgages entirely
D. Gifts to family members only
Answer: B. While a suit affecting immovable property is pending, disposals may be restricted to protect litigants.

Section 53A (doctrine of part performance) protects transferees who:
A. Have never performed any act in reliance
B. Taken possession and performed conditions under a contract if transferor sues to set aside the transfer
C. Only filed registration without possession
D. Are buyers who paid nothing
Answer: B. Part performance prevents transferor from asserting title where transferee has acted in reliance and possession has changed.

Transfer by ostensible owner gives protection to transferee when:
A. Transferee has constructive notice of defect always
B. Transferor appears to be owner and transferee acts in good faith for value; transferee may obtain good title against third parties
C. Transferor is proven to be a thief only
D. Title is always voidable by anyone thereafter
Answer: B. Protection of bona fide transferee in equity relies on appearance of ownership and good faith acquisition.

A transfer in fraud of creditors (fraudulent conveyance) is:
A. Permitted under TPA freely
B. Voidable at creditors’ instance if intended to defeat creditors’ interests
C. Always valid even if fraudulent intent appears
D. Enforceable against all creditors forever
Answer: B. Conveyances executed to put assets beyond reach of creditors can be set aside.

A “sublease” arises when:
A. Lessor transfers absolute title
B. Tenant grants lease of the same premises to another for a period shorter than his own tenancy
C. Transferor sells property outright
D. Only leases less than a week qualify
Answer: B. Sublease creates tenancy subordinate to original lease; original tenant remains liable to landlord.

The rights of a transferee under a voidable transfer are:
A. Identical to rights under a void transfer
B. Dependent on whether the transfer has been avoided; until avoided, transferee may have protection if bona fide
C. Always superior to prior registered mortgages
D. Automatically convert into ownership on death of transferor
Answer: B. Voidable transfers can be validated or set aside depending on remedy sought and transferee’s good faith.

A transfer effected by coercion or undue influence may be:
A. Set aside by the aggrieved party on proof of coercion/undue influence
B. Treated as absolute and unchallengeable
C. Always criminal with no civil remedy
D. Valid only during the coercer’s lifetime
Answer: A. Contracts/transfers induced by coercion/undue influence are voidable at the victim’s option.

Under the TPA, the burden of proving payment of mortgage-money typically lies on:
A. Mortgagee always
B. Mortgagor (who claims redemption/payment) when asserting payment
C. Registrar of deeds
D. Any third party
Answer: B. One seeking to show that mortgage debt has been paid must typically prove payment.

Rights of mortgagee in possession include:
A. Claim to ownership free of all duties
B. Right to receive rents and apply them towards mortgage-money, subject to mortgage terms
C. No remedy at all for default
D. Obligation to demolish structures only
Answer: B. Mortgagee in possession gets income from property to satisfy mortgage debt as contractual terms allow.

A transfer of property which is void ab initio confers:
A. Good title on transferee
B. No title; it is null from the outset
C. Partial ownership only
D. Right to enforce by sale against third parties
Answer: B. Void transfers are treated as having never existed, unlike voidable transfers.

A restriction in a sale deed forbidding further transfer forever is:
A. Valid under all circumstances
B. Generally void as absolute restraint on alienation (public policy disfavors absolute restraints)
C. Valid and enforceable only if notarised weekly
D. Recognised as valid for movable property only
Answer: B. Absolute restraints on alienation are void though reasonable restraints in leases/limited contexts may be enforced.

Co-ownership (joint tenancy or tenancy in common) under property law means:
A. Each co-owner always has exclusive rights to whole property
B. Each co-owner has a share and rights to possession; type of co-ownership defines right of survivorship
C. None may transfer their share individually
D. Co-owners always become tenants only after 50 years
Answer: B. Co-owners share possession; specifics of interest depend on the form of co-ownership.

Under TPA, transfer by a person suffering from unsoundness of mind may be:
A. Always valid regardless of capacity
B. Voidable if it is proved that the person lacked capacity at time of transfer
C. Automatically converted into gift to the state
D. Void only if done in presence of a magistrate
Answer: B. Transfers by persons incapable of understanding consequences may be set aside by guardians or affected parties.

A transfer which reserves to the transferor the right to revoke later is:
A. A valid transfer in all cases without limits
B. A conditional transfer—validity depends on nature of condition and whether it constitutes an impermissible restraint
C. Always an equitable mortgage only
D. Equivalent to an absolute sale always
Answer: B. Reservations of power to revoke create conditional transfers; enforceability depends on public policy and contract terms.

Under the Act, “mortgagee’s right to foreclosure” means:
A. Mortgagee can imprison mortgagor for non-payment
B. A decree extinguishing mortgagor’s right of redemption and vesting absolute title in mortgagee
C. Mortgagee obtains criminal conviction immediately
D. Mortgagee must transfer property to state first
Answer: B. Foreclosure terminates mortgagor’s equity of redemption in certain mortgage types with court decree.

The remedy of sale in mortgage suits:
A. Grants mortgagee indefinite possession only
B. Permits sale of mortgaged property under court decree to recover mortgage-money
C. Is not available under TPA at all
D. Requires mortgagor’s signature every month
Answer: B. Court can order sale of mortgaged property to satisfy mortgage-money when mortgagor defaults.

In a usufructuary mortgage the mortgagee:
A. Gets no rights to enjoyment of property at all
B. Takes possession and enjoys property’s produce in lieu of interest/repayment
C. Must pay rent to mortgagor always
D. Is prohibited from any use of property entirely
Answer: B. Usufructuary mortgage involves enjoyment of property by mortgagee as security for debt recovery.

A transfer made in consideration of marriage is:
A. Void always under TPA
B. Generally valid as a settlement in relation to marriage when formalities are complied with (subject to other provisions)
C. Only permitted if made by parents
D. Automatically becomes a mortgage
Answer: B. Marital settlements/consideration for marriage transfers are recognized when validly executed.

A charge on immovable property differs from a mortgage because:
A. A charge conveys title always
B. Charge creates security but does not transfer interest or right to possession by itself
C. A charge is always enforceable by sale without decree
D. Charge is a criminal concept only
Answer: B. Charge imposes a security interest; enforcement and remedies differ from mortgages.

If a transfer is registered but the transferor had no title, registration:
A. Makes transferee absolute owner against true owner always
B. Does not, in general, confer better title than transferor had; registration is procedural and not a cure for want of title
C. Converts the registrant into an absolute mortgagee automatically
D. Requires transferor’s imprisonment only
Answer: B. Registration perfects instrument but cannot vest a better title than the transferor had, except under specific statutory protections for bona fide purchasers.

Under recent practical reforms, digitisation of land records aims to:
A. Eliminate the need for any title searches permanently
B. Make land records transparent and ease property search / registration processes (implementation varies by state)
C. Remove registration requirement nationwide immediately
D. Convert all property to state ownership
Answer: B. Digitisation improves access to title/encumbrance info and streamlines registration, though state systems differ. (Legal Eye)

A transfer of property by fraud may be set aside within:
A. Any time irrespective of statutes of limitation always
B. A reasonable time after discovery and subject to limitation/defensive doctrines (equity intervenes to set aside fraudulent conveyances)
C. Only within 24 hours always
D. Only after 100 years
Answer: B. Fraudulent transfers can be challenged once fraud is discovered, subject to limitation law and laches.

“Doctrine of constructive notice” affects transferees who:
A. Have actual, personal knowledge only
B. Are deemed to have knowledge of facts available on the public record or by reasonable inspection
C. Are never bound by public records
D. Can ignore registered encumbrances always
Answer: B. Constructive notice imputes knowledge that parties could have discovered by due diligence.

Under the TPA, what happens when a mortgagor dies before redemption?
A. Mortgage is extinguished automatically
B. Mortgage continues as a charge on property; representatives may exercise mortgagor’s rights including redemption
C. Mortgagee loses all remedies
D. Property becomes public domain immediately
Answer: B. Death does not extinguish a mortgage; estate representatives step into mortgagor’s shoes for redemption.

A lease for a term exceeding one year ordinarily requires:
A. No writing at all
B. A written lease and registration under the Registration Act in some jurisdictions (formalities vary)
C. Only verbal mutual assent always suffices
D. Court permission every year
Answer: B. Formalities for long leases may require writing and registration per local law.

A condition precedent in a transfer means the transfer:
A. Takes effect immediately regardless of occurrence
B. Becomes operative only upon fulfillment of the specified condition
C. Is voidable by mortgagee automatically
D. Converts into a mortgage after the first year only
Answer: B. Condition precedent delays vesting or operation until specified event occurs.

A transfer by a minor is:
A. Always valid and binding forever
B. Voidable or void depending on nature—minors lack capacity to contract; transfers by guardian/under court may be valid
C. Governed by TPA alone without guardianship law
D. Valid only if registered annually
Answer: B. Minor’s contracts/transfers are subject to guardianship law and capacity rules.

Transfer by a person under disability (e.g., adjudicated insolvent) is:
A. Always valid without restriction
B. May be void or voidable depending on specific circumstances and statutory rules
C. Considered as absolute sale always
D. Valid only for movable property
Answer: B. Transfers by persons under legal disability are subject to protective rules and may be avoidable.

Where a transferee pays part of the price and goes into possession, but vendor refuses to transfer title, equitable relief includes:
A. No remedy available
B. Specific performance or declaration of equitable interest, depending on circumstances
C. Criminal prosecution of vendor only
D. Vendor’s right to confiscate transferee’s other assets only
Answer: B. Equitable doctrines protect purchaser who has performed and taken possession.

A transfer for consideration without delivery of possession is:
A. Always a valid transfer of title if written and registered where required
B. May be valid in law if formalities are completed; possession is crucial in many contexts but not always essential to transfer of title
C. Always void unless accompanied by criminal sanction
D. Automatically a mortgage only
Answer: B. Title can pass by registered instrument even before physical delivery if statutory formalities are satisfied.

Under state amendments (e.g., Punjab 2023), requirements for documents accompanying registration may be:
A. Abolished nationwide immediately by TPA
B. Specified by state rules to identify property and annex prescribed papers to facilitate registration
C. Only applicable to movable goods
D. Mandatory only for gifts to foreign nationals
Answer: B. Some states amended procedures to prescribe documents required at registration to ensure identification and prevent fraud. (MLS)

A transfer by a person in wrongful possession (e.g., trespasser) gives:
A. Good title to transferee against all the world
B. Generally no better title than the transferor had; transferee may be protected in limited statutory circumstances
C. Title superior to registered owner always
D. Eviction immunity for transferee forever
Answer: B. Transferee’s title is limited by transferor’s defective title unless statutory protection applies.

“Lis pendens” (rule against transfers pendente lite) requires the transferring party to:
A. Convict the opposing party first
B. Disclose pending litigation affecting property; subsequent transferees take subject to the suit’s result
C. Pay an additional registration fee always
D. Obtain consent of court for transfer always
Answer: B. Transfers during litigation affecting title do not defeat rights arising from suit; parties must beware.

A covenant in a transfer restricting user (e.g., no commercial use) is enforced by:
A. Criminal courts only
B. Civil remedies (injunction, damages) depending on terms and public policy
C. Automatic sale by state if breached
D. Police seizure only
Answer: B. Restrictive covenants are enforced through civil remedies if they are reasonable and not illegal.

Under TPA, a licenced occupier (licensee) differs from a tenant because:
A. Licensee has exclusive estate in land always
B. Licensee has mere permission to use property without creating tenancy and can be revoked
C. Licensee’s possession is always indefeasible
D. Licensee can sublet freely without licenseor’s consent
Answer: B. License creates personal permission, not an interest in land as tenancy does.

The law on transfer of easements (e.g., right of way) under TPA allows:
A. Easements to be created only by statute
B. Easements can be created, transferred and extinguished by conveyance or prescription subject to formalities
C. Easements cannot be transferred under any circumstances
D. Only the state may grant easements
Answer: B. Easements are transferable as property rights under specified rules and usages.

When a transfer is made subject to a condition subsequent that cannot be legally enforced, the condition:
A. Is necessarily binding and valid forever
B. Will be treated as void; the transfer remains valid unless the condition is legal and enforceable
C. Converts the transfer into a mortgage automatically
D. Requires immediate cancellation by court
Answer: B. Illegal or impossible conditions are void and do not defeat vesting unless they strike at the transfer’s essence.

A transferee in possession for an estate pur autre vie holds the land:
A. For his life only always
B. For the life of another (pur autre vie) as defined by the transfer terms
C. As a trustee without any personal rights
D. With absolute ownership very rarely
Answer: B. Estate pur autre vie is measured by the life of another person.

Transfer of property by way of voluntary partition requires:
A. Action by the court only always
B. Mutual agreement and formal division of shares; registration if required by law for immovables
C. Only verbal understanding without record anywhere
D. Central government approval
Answer: B. Partition divides co-owned property by agreement or court decree; immovable partitions often need registration.

The “doctrine of merger” in property law means:
A. Lease converts into mortgage automatically always
B. When a greater and lesser estate become united in same person without any intermediate estate, the lesser is merged into the greater
C. Title deeds automatically vanish after merger
D. All prior covenants are revived automatically
Answer: B. Merger extinguishes subordinate estates when unity of ownership occurs with no intervening interest.

A transfer made under undue influence by a dominant party over a dependent party is:
A. Voidable at the option of the dependent party on proof of undue influence
B. Automatically valid if registered
C. Only actionable under criminal law exclusively
D. Enforceable if two witnesses are present
Answer: A. Undue influence vitiates consent and makes transfer voidable.

Under TPA, a person in whose favour attachment under decree has been executed holds:
A. Absolute unchallengeable title irrespective of earlier claims
B. Only a title subject to prior equities; attachment does not create better title than the decree-holder had
C. No rights to receive proceeds of sale ever
D. Immunity from subsequent litigation always
Answer: B. Attachment and sale under decree divest interest but do not cure prior defects in vendor’s title.

A conditional sale where transfer vests only on fulfilment of condition is termed:
A. Absolute sale always
B. Conditional sale; future interest may depend on condition precedent or subsequent
C. Only a lease in disguise
D. Void by law always
Answer: B. Conditional sale vesting depends on performance of stipulated condition.

The obligations to disclose encumbrances while effecting transfer rest primarily on:
A. Transferee only always
B. Transferor (vendor) to disclose title defects and encumbrances; purchaser must also conduct due diligence
C. Registration authority only
D. State government only
Answer: B. Vendor must ensure truthful disclosure; buyer’s due diligence is crucial.

Where property is transferred to A for life, and then to A’s children, the interest of children is:
A. A right in reversion only
B. A remainder (contingent on existence of children at time of vesting)
C. Absolute ownership immediately at transferor’s death only
D. Invalid under TPA always
Answer: B. Remainder interests vest after life estate ends, contingent on existence of beneficiaries.

An oral agreement for sale of immovable property later reduced to writing may be:
A. Enforceable even without writing in all situations (subject to statute of frauds)
B. In many cases, unenforceable unless written and registered as required by law; exceptions may apply if part performance is proved
C. Always criminal only
D. Automatically void and of no legal effect at any time
Answer: B. Statute of frauds/formal requirements make many oral immovable property contracts unenforceable unless part performance or other exceptions apply.

Transfer by public officer acting beyond authority is:
A. Always valid and unchallengeable
B. Voidable; transferor’s lack of authority may render instrument voidable and subject to set-aside
C. Automatically converts to a mortgage by operation of law
D. Requires payment to government only
Answer: B. Unauthorized transfers by public officers may be invalidated though bona fide transferees may sometimes obtain protection.

A transfer in favour of a non-existent person (e.g., “to A and B’s unborn child”) is:
A. Valid and vests immediately
B. Void or contingent; rights will vest only when the person comes into existence in accordance with law
C. Automatically transfers to state treasury
D. A criminal act under TPA
Answer: B. Transfers to non-existent persons are contingent and governed by rules on contingency and vesting.

Under TPA, the right to redeem a mortgage:
A. Is lost immediately on default always
B. Is the mortgagor’s equity to reclaim title by paying debt and is subject to statutory/contractual terms
C. Converts into a tenure right forever
D. Is given only to mortgagee permanently
Answer: B. Equity of redemption allows mortgagor to reclaim property by paying debt before foreclosure or sale.

Title search before transfer aims to discover:
A. Only the colour of the house
B. Encumbrances, prior transfers, mortgages, litigation, and defects in vendor’s title
C. Only whether the owner is rich
D. Only previous sale prices
Answer: B. Title search ensures buyer is aware of encumbrances and title defects.

A transfer executed under a forged power of attorney is:
A. Valid if registered only
B. Voidable/void (forgery invalidates the authority); bona fide purchasers may be protected under limited statutory protections
C. Automatically results in immediate conviction of purchaser
D. Valid as long as possession changes hands
Answer: B. Forgery vitiates transferor’s authority; transferee protection depends on circumstances and registration rules.

Under recent state-level reforms, regularisation schemes for earlier irregular transfers typically:
A. Grant immediate criminal immunity only
B. Allow retrospective registration/regularisation subject to conditions and public policy to clear titles (state-specific)
C. Are uniform nationally under TPA without state law input
D. Make all prior transfers automatically void forever
Answer: B. States have enacted schemes to regularise historic irregular transfers—implementation and eligibility vary by state. (The Times of India)

A transfer by a trustee of trust property contrary to trust terms:
A. Is always valid and beneficiary cannot complain
B. Is voidable at the instance of beneficiary/trust protector for breach of trust
C. Automatically converts the trustee into owner indefinitely
D. Requires criminal sanction only with no civil remedy
Answer: B. Trustees must follow trust instrument; breach entitles beneficiaries to set-aside transfer and remedies.

Remedies for breach of covenant in a transfer include:
A. Only criminal prosecution always
B. Injunction, damages, specific performance, or rescission depending on nature of breach
C. Instant transfer of ownership to third parties only
D. No remedy available at all
Answer: B. Courts grant civil remedies tailored to harm and contract terms.

A transfer executed under mistake as to identity is:
A. Voidable if mistake goes to root of transaction (identity of contracting party), enabling rescission
B. Always valid regardless of mistake
C. Only remediable by gift conversion
D. Automatically results in transferor’s imprisonment
Answer: A. Mistake of identity may vitiate consent and render transfer voidable if fundamental.

A transfer by operation of law (e.g., by insolvency) results in:
A. Transferor retaining absolute title
B. Legal divestment/vesting in designated authority or trustee per statutory code (insolvency/land laws)
C. Creation of a new type of mortgage only
D. Immediate nullification of debts always
Answer: B. Statutory processes can transfer property title by operation of law to trustees/authorities.

Under TPA, time is of essence in a contract when:
A. Parties say so or circumstances indicate; failure to perform by stipulated time may be breach entitling remedies
B. Time is never relevant in property contracts
C. Only the government may specify time limits always
D. Time becomes essence only if court orders it later
Answer: A. If contract makes time essential, non-compliance can be material breach.

A transfer with a restraint on marriage (e.g., property given on condition that beneficiary not marry a certain person) will be:
A. Always valid and enforced criminally on breach
B. Subject to public policy; certain personal restraints may be void if they curb personal liberty unreasonably
C. Enforceable only by police order
D. Converted to mortgage automatically
Answer: B. Restraints affecting personal liberty (like marriage conditions) are assessed for reasonableness and public policy.

Under TPA principles, registration of an instrument operates to:
A. Create title irrespective of fraud always
B. Provide notice of the instrument; does not in general cure want of title except in limited statutory circumstances
C. Is irrelevant to constructive notice
D. Is always optional for immovable property transfers over any value
Answer: B. Registration gives constructive notice and is necessary for certain instruments but does not confer superior title over true owner absent protection rules.

Transfer in consideration of natural love and affection (e.g., between relatives) is:
A. Always invalid under TPA
B. Valid as a gift or transfer if formalities (writing/registration for immovables) are complied with
C. Automatically taxable as sale only
D. Fully criminal under all laws
Answer: B. Transfers as gifts for love/affection are valid subject to statutory formalities.

A sale by a person under a power of attorney is valid when:
A. Power of attorney is genuine, authority covers sale, and any necessary registration/attestation formalities are satisfied
B. Power of attorney never permits sale under any circumstances
C. Sale is valid only if witnessed by magistrate daily
D. Only valid if done before a three-judge bench
Answer: A. POA can empower sale if it grants authority; bona fide purchaser protection may depend on registration and due diligence.

A transfer created by mutual agreement to partition property must be:
A. Secret always and unrecorded
B. Effected by mutual instrument and appropriate formalities (registration for immovables) where required
C. Implemented by police order immediately
D. Treated as mortgage until proven otherwise
Answer: B. Partition by agreement requires proper documentation and (in many jurisdictions) registration for immovables.

A covenant to repair in favour of landlord is:
A. Void always against lessee
B. Enforceable as contractual obligation; breach gives remedies to landlord
C. Automatically extinguishes lease on breach only
D. Not recognized under TPA
Answer: B. Repair covenants are contractual and enforceable via remedies like damages or injunctive relief.

An assignment of future rent (from tenant to creditor) is:
A. Not possible at all
B. Possible as charge/assignment of receivables; effectiveness depends on terms and notice to tenant
C. Automatically void after one month
D. Criminal unless done through court only
Answer: B. Future rents can be assigned but require notice and enforceability depends on the lease terms.

In transfers, estoppel may operate to prevent:
A. Any enforcement of rights always
B. A party from denying facts or rights previously represented to the detriment of another who relied on them
C. Transfer of movable property only
D. The state from charging taxes only
Answer: B. Estoppel prevents inconsistent conduct when another has relied to their detriment.

A purchaser who records an instrument but fails to publish or possess the property:
A. Gains absolute immunity from prior equities always
B. May still be affected by prior equities or prior registered interests depending on the nature of notice/priority
C. Automatically becomes owner of background mineral rights only
D. Must pay extra stamp duty forever
Answer: B. Priority rules depend on registration, possession, constructive notice and local law.

Transfer by operation of adverse possession results in:
A. Immediate criminal status change only
B. Possible acquisition of title by the possessor after statutory period and satisfying legal conditions (law of limitation/adverse possession)
C. Ownership for only one day then revert
D. Transfer limited to movable goods only
Answer: B. Adverse possession can extinguish owner’s rights and confer title on possessor subject to statutory period.

A transfer that contains a covenant to maintain a cemetery is:
A. Enforceable as a restrictive covenant if reasonable and touches and concerns the land
B. Never enforceable at all
C. Void as against public policy always
D. Converts property into state land automatically
Answer: A. Positive covenants can be enforceable in certain private contexts if they relate to the land and parties.

A buyer under a defective title who is a bona fide purchaser for value and without notice:
A. May receive protection under equitable doctrines or specific statutory rules, depending on jurisdiction
B. Is required to forfeit purchase price only always
C. Loses all legal remedies automatically
D. Must immediately transfer property to vendor only
Answer: A. Bona fide purchaser protections vary; in some cases they get protection against private equities but not always against true owner.

Transfer by lease with option to purchase creates:
A. A contractual right (option) coupled with tenancy; exercise vests proprietary interest as per contract terms
B. No property interest ever
C. Immediate sale irrespective of exercise
D. A mortgage instead of a sale always
Answer: A. Option to purchase is a contractual right; on valid exercise it can create proprietary transfer.

The principle of “nemo dat quod non habet” (no one can give what he does not have) means:
A. Transferee can acquire better title than transferor if instrument is registered
B. Title cannot pass from a person who has no title, subject to statutory exceptions protecting bona fide purchasers
C. Transferor always has title even if forged
D. Title is independent of transferor’s capacity always
Answer: B. General rule limits transferee’s title to transferor’s title, with exceptions in law.

A condition subsequent that vests title back to transferor upon occurrence of event is:
A. Valid if lawful (creates a defeasible estate subject to event)
B. Always void under all property law
C. Only applicable to movable property always
D. Criminally enforceable only by police
Answer: A. Conditions subsequent can create defeasible estates if not contrary to public policy.

Transfer of property in exchange for annuity (periodic payments) constitutes:
A. A simple gift only
B. A sale or transfer for consideration (often called sale for annuity) with transferee having title and transferrer receiving annuity payments
C. Always illegal under TPA
D. A criminal offense always
Answer: B. Annuity-based transfers are recognized contractual transfers of property for consideration paid over time.

Transfer by operation of family settlement (compromise among family members) is:
A. Invalid always under TPA
B. Valid if effected by lawful settlement and formalities (where required) complied with
C. Requires court decree always
D. Can be done only by will
Answer: B. Family settlements effect transfer of rights and are enforceable when properly executed.

Under the TPA, when a transferee obtains injunctive relief to restrain vendor from transferring property, the injunction:
A. Preserves status quo and may prevent subsequent transfers until suit is resolved
B. Converts vendor’s title into mortgage automatically
C. Is always disregarded by registration authorities
D. Lasts forever without possible variation
Answer: A. Interim injunctions protect interests pending final adjudication.

The central objective of the Transfer of Property Act is to:
A. Replace all land records with verbal agreements exclusively
B. Provide legal framework for transfers of property, define rights/remedies of parties, and secure certainty and fairness in transactions
C. Abolish private ownership of land entirely
D. Make transfer of property a criminal-only subject
Answer: B. TPA structures how transfers are made, rights/obligations of parties and remedies in the event of disputes.