1. The Constitution of India came into force on:
A. 15 August 1947
B. 26 November 1949
C. 26 January 1950
D. 2 October 1950
Answer: C
Explanation: The Constitution was adopted on 26 November 1949 but came into force on 26 January 1950.

2. The Preamble declares India as:
A. Sovereign, Democratic, Republic
B. Sovereign, Aristocratic, Republic
C. Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic
D. Socialist, Secular, Federal State
Answer: C
Explanation: “Socialist” and “Secular” were added by the 42nd Amendment.

3. The idea of the Preamble was borrowed from:
A. USA
B. UK
C. Canada
D. USA
Answer: D
Explanation: The Indian Preamble is inspired by the U.S. Constitution’s Preamble.

4. The word “Fraternity” in the Preamble means:
A. Promotion of religion
B. Brotherhood among all citizens
C. Centralised government
D. Cultural restrictions
Answer: B
Explanation: It ensures dignity of individuals and unity of the nation.

5. Which part of the Constitution is not enforceable by court?
A. Fundamental Rights
B. Directive Principles of State Policy
C. Fundamental Duties
D. Preamble
Answer: B
Explanation: DPSPs are non-justiciable guidelines.

6. The Preamble is:
A. Not a part of the Constitution
B. Legally enforceable
C. Part of the Constitution but non-justiciable
D. None
Answer: C
Explanation: Kesavananda Bharati (1973) held that the Preamble is part of the Constitution.

7. “Unity and integrity of the Nation” was added by:
A. 1st Amendment
B. 42nd Amendment
C. 44th Amendment
D. 73rd Amendment
Answer: B
Explanation: Inserted during the Emergency period reforms.

8. The Constitution of India is:
A. Unitary
B. Federal with unitary features
C. Purely federal
D. Arbitrary
Answer: B

9. India borrowed the Parliamentary system from:
A. USA
B. Australia
C. UK
D. Ireland
Answer: C

10. The Constitution is called “Bag of Borrowings” because:
A. It is copied
B. It draws provisions from many Constitutions
C. No original content
D. All the above
Answer: B

11. Fundamental Rights are covered in:
A. Part IVA
B. Part III
C. Part V
D. Part IX
Answer: B

12. The Right to Equality covers Articles:
A. 14–15
B. 14–18
C. 19–22
D. 25–28
Answer: B

13. Article 14 guarantees:
A. Equal pay
B. Equality of outcome
C. Equality before law & equal protection of laws
D. No discrimination
Answer: C

14. The “Untouchability” abolition is under:
A. Article 14
B. 15(1)
C. 17(2)
D. Article 17
Answer: D

15. Right to Freedom is from Article:
A. 14–18
B. 19–22
C. 23–24
D. 25–28
Answer: B

16. Article 19 does NOT include:
A. Freedom of speech
B. Freedom of movement
C. Right to property
D. Peaceful assembly
Answer: C
Explanation: Right to property was removed from FRs by the 44th Amendment.

17. Protection against arrest & detention is under:
A. Article 19
B. Article 21
C. Article 22
D. Article 24
Answer: C

18. Article 21 includes Right to:
A. Property
B. Equality
C. Life and personal liberty
D. Vote
Answer: C

19. Article 21A deals with:
A. Alcohol prohibition
B. Right to Education
C. Child labour
D. Reservation
Answer: B

20. Right to Constitutional Remedies is in:
A. Article 30
B. 22
C. 32
D. 226
Answer: C

21. Which Article is the “heart & soul of the Constitution”?
A. 14
B. 21
C. 32
D. 226
Answer: C
Explanation: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar called Article 32 the “heart and soul.”

22. Writ of Habeas Corpus means:
A. For public use
B. Transfer of case
C. Produce the body
D. To be informed
Answer: C

23. Abolition of titles is under:
A. Article 19
B. 25
C. 18
D. 30
Answer: C

24. Child labour prohibition is under:
A. 15
B. 16
C. 21A
D. 24
Answer: D

25. Cultural & Educational Rights are Articles:
A. 21A
B. 14–18
C. 29–30
D. 31–32
Answer: C

26. Article 25 guarantees:
A. Minority rights
B. Freedom of religion
C. Equality
D. Cultural rights
Answer: B

27. Right to privacy was held a fundamental right in:
A. Golaknath
B. Kesavananda
C. Puttaswamy (2017)
D. Menaka Gandhi
Answer: C

28. The right abolished by 44th Amendment:
A. Equality
B. Education
C. Speech
D. Property
Answer: D

29. Forced labour is prohibited under:
A. 19
B. 23
C. 24
D. 25
Answer: B

30. Article 20 deals with:
A. Double taxation
B. Ex-post facto laws & double jeopardy
C. Speedy trial
D. Socio-economic rights
Answer: B

31. Article 31 (Right to Property) is now a:

A. Fundamental Right
B. Basic Structure
C. Directive Principle
D. Legal/Constitutional Right
Answer: D
Explanation: It was removed from Part III by the 44th Amendment.

32. Article 33 empowers Parliament to modify Fundamental Rights for:

A. Women
B. Minorities
C. Public servants
D. Armed forces & intelligence agencies
Answer: D
Explanation: To ensure discipline and proper discharge of duties.

33. Right against exploitation covers Articles:

A. 19–22
B. 23–24
C. 25–28
D. 29–30
Answer: B

34. Article 30 gives minorities the right to:

A. Practice religion
B. Reservation
C. Establish and administer educational institutions
D. Hold public office
Answer: C

35. Who can enforce Fundamental Rights?

A. High Courts
B. Supreme Court
C. Both Supreme Court (Art. 32) and High Courts (Art. 226)
D. District courts
Answer:

36. DPSPs are included in:

A. Part II
B. Part IV
C. Part III
D. Schedule IX
Answer: B

37. Which of the following is NOT a DPSP?

A. Equal pay for equal work
B. Promotion of education
C. Welfare of people
D. Right to life
Answer: D
Explanation: Right to life is a Fundamental Right under Article 21.

38. DPSPs are inspired by:

A. USA
B. UK
C. Ireland
D. Canada
Answer: C

39. DPSPs can be classified as:

A. Socialist
B. Gandhian
C. Liberal–Intellectual
D. All of the above
Answer: D

40. Which Article directs the State to organise village panchayats?

A. 38
B. 40
C. 40
D. 43
Answer: C

41. Uniform Civil Code is under:

A. Article 44
B. 45
C. 48
D. 50
Answer: A

42. Provision for free legal aid is under:

A. Article 39F
B. Article 32
C. Article 39A
D. Article 51
Answer: C

43. DPSPs are:

A. Legally enforceable
B. Part of FRs
C. Not enforceable but fundamental for governance
D. Customary
Answer: C

44. Separation of judiciary from executive is under:

A. 50
B. 51
C. 40
D. 48
Answer: A

45. Protection of environment and forests is under:

A. Article 41
B. Article 45
C. Article 48A
D. Article 51A
Answer:

46. Fundamental Duties were added by:

A. 1st Amendment
B. 42nd Amendment
C. 42nd Amendment, 1976
D. 44th Amendment
Answer: C

47. They are included in:

A. Part IV
B. Part III
C. Part IX
D. Part IVA (Article 51A)
Answer: D

48. Which is a Fundamental Duty?

A. Freedom of speech
B. Equal pay
C. To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals
D. Right to property
Answer: C

49. Duty to protect the environment is under:

A. 48A
B. 51A(g)
C. 51A(h)
D. 51A(d)
Answer: B

50. Fundamental Duties are:

A. Justiciable
B. Not enforceable but promote civic responsibility
C. Both
D. None
Answer: B

51. The Indian Parliament consists of:

A. Lok Sabha & High Court
B. President & Lok Sabha
C. President, Rajya Sabha & Lok Sabha
D. PM & Lok Sabha
Answer: C

52. Maximum strength of Lok Sabha is:

A. 450
B. 545
C. 552
D. 600
Answer: C

53. Rajya Sabha is also called:

A. House of People
B. Council of States
C. Upper Council
D. Legislative Council
Answer: B

54. Minimum age for Lok Sabha membership:

A. 21
B. 25
C. 30
D. 35
Answer: B

55. Minimum age for Rajya Sabha:

A. 21
B. 25
C. 30
D. 35
Answer: C

56. Money Bills can be introduced only in:

A. Rajya Sabha
B. Joint Sitting
C. Lok Sabha
D. Either House
Answer: C

57. Who decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill?

A. PM
B. President
C. Attorney General
D. Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer: D

58. Quorum of either House is:

A. 1/5
B. 1/10
C. 1/3
D. 1/2
Answer: B

59. A joint sitting is called to resolve:

A. Budget issues
B. Constitutional Amendments
C. Disagreement on Ordinary Bills
D. All bills
Answer: C

60. President addresses the Parliament under Article:

A. 52
B. 55
C. 87
D. 110
Answer: C

61. Anti-defection law is under:

A. Article 365
B. Article 375
C. Tenth Schedule
D. Eighth Schedule
Answer: C

62. The Speaker can be removed by:

A. President
B. PM
C. Resolution of Lok Sabha
D. Supreme Court
Answer: C

63. Budget is presented under Article:

A. 110
B. 111
C. 112
D. 117
Answer: C

64. Who presides over a joint sitting?

A. PM
B. Speaker
C. Speaker of Lok Sabha
D. President
Answer: C

65. Minimum number of sittings of Parliament per year:

A. 1
B. 2 (No formal requirement, but generally 3 sessions)
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B
Explanation: Constitution does not mandate a number, but practice ensures 2–3.

66. President of India is elected by:

A. Citizens
B. MPs only
C. MLAs only
D. Electoral College (MPs + MLAs of States/UTs)
Answer: D

67. The term of President is:

A. 4 years
B. 5 years
C. 6 years
D. 7 years
Answer: B

68. Impeachment of President is under:

A. Article 52
B. 55
C. 61
D. 72
Answer: C

69. Pardoning power of President is under:

A. 52
B. 72
C. 74
D. 79
Answer: B

70. The real executive authority is:

A. President
B. Prime Minister & Council of Ministers
C. Speaker
D. Judiciary
Answer: B

71. Article 74 deals with:

A. Cabinet
B. PM’s election
C. Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President
D. Parliamentary Committees
Answer: C

72. CAG is appointed by:

A. PM
B. Speaker
C. President
D. Supreme Court
Answer: C

73. Tenure of CAG:

A. 5 years
B. 6 years or until 65 years
C. 3 years
D. 7 years
Answer: B

4. Salary of CAG is drawn from:

A. PMO
B. Parliament
C. Planning Commission
D. Consolidated Fund of India
Answer: D

76. Supreme Court is established under:

A. Article 118
B. 280
C. Article 124
D. 213
Answer: C

77. Number of judges in SC (excluding CJI):

A. 20
B. 30
C. 33 (Total = 34)
D. 40
Answer: C

78. Minimum age for SC judge:

A. 25
B. 30
C. No minimum age specified
D. 45
Answer: C

79. Writ jurisdiction of Supreme Court is under:

A. Article 32
B. 226
C. 131
D. 136
Answer: A

80. Advisory jurisdiction of SC is under:

A. 131
B. 132
C. 136
D. 143
Answer: D

81. High Courts are constituted under:

A. Article 214
B. 214
C. 226
D. 227
Answer: B

82. High Courts can issue writs under:

A. 32
B. 226
C. 136
D. 227
Answer: B

83. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) was introduced in:

A. Minerva Mills
B. Hussainara Khatoon case
C. Golaknath
D. Keshavananda
Answer: B

84. Independence of Judiciary is part of:

A. Union List
B. DPSP
C. Basic Structure
D. 7th Schedule
Answer: C

85. SC can review its own judgment under Article:

A. 131
B. 132
C. 137
D. 227
Answer:

86. Procedure for Constitutional Amendment is under:

A. 365
B. Article 368
C. 370
D. 246
Answer: B

87. Basic Structure doctrine was laid down in:

A. Golaknath
B. Minerva Mills
C. Kesavananda Bharati (1973)
D. A.K. Gopalan
Answer: C

88. National Emergency can be declared on grounds of:

A. External aggression
B. Armed rebellion
C. War
D. All of the above
Answer: D

89. Article for National Emergency:

A. 352
B. 356
C. 352
D. 360
Answer: C

90. President’s Rule (State Emergency) is under:

A. 352
B. 356
C. 360
D. 365
Answer: B

91. Financial Emergency is under:

A. 352
B. 356
C. 360
D. 365
Answer: C

92. Maximum duration of National Emergency:

A. 6 months
B. No maximum limit; can be extended indefinitely with approval
C. 3 years
D. 5 years
Answer: B

93. Schedules in the Constitution:

A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 14
Answer: C

94. The 8th Schedule deals with:

A. States
B. Tribal areas
C. Languages
D. Anti-defection
Answer: C

95. Currently recognised languages in the 8th Schedule:

A. 14
B. 18
C. 20
D. 22
Answer: D

96. Anti-defection law is in:

A. 9th Schedule
B. 8th Schedule
C. 10th Schedule
D. 12th Schedule
Answer: C

97. Panchayati Raj was given constitutional status by:

A. 61st Amendment
B. 73rd Amendment (1992)
C. 74th Amendment
D. 42nd Amendment
Answer: B

98. Municipalities were constitutionalised by:

A. 71st
B. 72nd
C. 74th Amendment
D. 79th
Answer: C

99. Which case held that Parliament cannot destroy the Basic Structure?

A. Golaknath
B. Minerva Mills (1980)
C. Kihoto Hollohan
D. Sajjan Singh
Answer: B

100. The Constitution of India establishes:

A. Pure federalism
B. Pure unitary system
C. Quasi-federal system with strong central features
D. Unitary with federal features
Answer: C
Explanation: Indian federalism contains both federal & unitary characteristics.